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  #1 ()
Plaulmivisual : Six years ago, at the age of 19, my boyfriend was in a bad car wreck. He stayed in a coma for almost two months and sustained a brain injury. During this time that he was mentally incapacitated, his father was "named" conservator or something like that. Therefore, the $30,000 that was part of my boyfriend's settlement from the accident, is in the sole supervision of his father. Today, my boyfriend is definitely mentally capable of handling his own money, rents his own place, is an awesome driver, ect. However, his father says that he'll ( my boyfriend) will never be able to be over/supervisor of his OWN $30,000 settlement. My boyfriend wants to better himself, get a newer, dependable vehicle, get us a house, ect., but how can he get his money out from under his controlling, greedy father? Can he remove his dad from having the authority over that money?
Also, my boyfriend recently got a letter from his doctor, deeming him mentally capable of handling his own finances, so he could get his mom's name off of his disability checks, finally.

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  #2 ()
Soansiodo : I think I would contact a family lawyer for this matter and possible sue his parnets, first I would contact social security and see what they have to say. Good Luck
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  #3 ()
Cackaragtuts : I was served a summons for an injury claim in a car wreck that I was not involved in. I have left messages with the lawyer but have yet to hear back. What is my responsibility to get this cleared up? How do I make sure that the summons is withdrawn?

It ticks me off that I have to deal with this mess. I have never lived in the state that is given as the last known address on the summons, driven the car described, or even have the same first name that is on the summons. The only thing that I have in common with the person that is supposed to be summoned is the same last name. I thought you had to have at least some reason to serve someone a summons.
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  #4 ()
Nanda : Send a letter via certified mail with return receipt, advising that you are not the person who has been named in the lawsuit. I would also send a copy of the letter to the court.

You may want to contact your car insurance company and let them know what's going on. They can hire an attorney for you to help clear up this.
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  #5 ()
Gromisilsss : Felons and bringing them in front of a court.
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  #6 ()
Kenoquaweenceei : Use Google.
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  #7 ()
Parkerb : That would be the county attorney.
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  #8 ()
boottantajork : Yes there might at least be accusations of fraud levelled at both of you, though I suspect a good lawyer might fight them off. In reality at first glance it looks as though it is fraud, btw. But that's not the same as getting convicted.

I would suggest that if you decide to do this, you should demand a slice. If you are going to share the risk, share the profits too.
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  #9 ()
LoonryAnync : Anyone can stop paying a mortgage, then try and rebuy it at the Sheriff's sale. That's not illegal, nor even fraudulent. HOWEVER, the plan has a fundamental flaw. The first bidder at a sheriff's sale is the bank, and they will bid the full amount of the note due. They owe the money to...themselves...so there's no risk on their part. The bank then resells the property, unless someone bids more than the value of the note, which does happen.
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  #10 ()
skekwoopy : Even if the bank forecloses on the house and sells the house on the market at a lessor value than what is owed on the mortgage your friend will still be responsible for what is left over on his mortgage loan...

(ie) A person has a home and owes a mortgage of $195,000 they stop paying the mortgage and the house is foreclosed on and sold on the market for $97,000 to you....The person then still owes a balance of $98,000 to the bank for the original mortgage...
Since there is still $98,000 owed on the mortage they will place a judgment against him for that amount...

When you transfer the deed to his name the house legally becomes his property, Since it is his property and he still owes a $98,000 judgment then a lien can be placed against the property to satisfy the judgment...

So basically he will still end up paying the amount of his orginal mortgage...

Now if he declares bankruptcy and gets the $98,000 judgment dismissed and then you transfer the deed into his name then you both could still run into legal problems such as
Fraud,
Conspiracy to defraud,
Violation of bankruptcy laws..
ect...

What your friend is basically suggesting is that you conspire with him to defraud the bank of a loan..
So tell them no...unless you have no reguard for your future such as having a criminal record or having to payout heavy fines ect ect..
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